definition of pedophilia (only professionals please)

Jan 2022
2
2
Germany
Hello,

first off I want to apologize for my bad english and for bringing this socially taboo topic up.

I'm curious if someone whose sexual attraction is mainly directed towards mature people, but also less towards prepubescent, can be defined as normophilic (teleiophilic) as one of the DSM-5 criteria for the diagnosis of pedophilia is a primary or exclusive attraction towards prepubescents.

If my take on the definition above is correct, I am also wondering what could possibly (ever so) slightly make teleiophilic people get aroused by/ attracted to children?
Maybe the choice of clothes (/ poses they strike in magazines, makeup they wear and make them look more mature) which they associate with "seductive"/ "sexy" (e.g. miniskirt as part of the widespread porn-theme of a "sexy schoolgirl look?") or the taboo part about fantasizing of prepubescents or maybe they get aroused by certain body parts (eventually regardless of age) (e.g. legs)?

Many thanks
 
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Jul 2021
618
79
London
Hello,

first off I want to apologize for my bad english and for bringing this socially taboo topic up.

I'm curious if someone whose sexual attraction is mainly directed towards mature people, but also less towards prepubescent, can be defined as normophilic (teleiophilic) as one of the DSM-5 criteria for the diagnosis of pedophilia is a primary or exclusive attraction towards prepubescents.

If my take on the definition above is correct, I am also wondering what could possibly (ever so) slightly make teleiophilic people get aroused by/ attracted to children?
Maybe the choice of clothes (/ poses they strike in magazines, makeup they wear and make them look more mature) which they associate with "seductive"/ "sexy" (e.g. miniskirt as part of the widespread porn-theme of a "sexy schoolgirl look?") or the taboo part about fantasizing of prepubescents or maybe they get aroused by certain body parts (eventually regardless of age) (e.g. legs)?

Many thanks
From my knowledge, which may be more limited than that of a psychologist in terms of diagnosis perhaps, although in some areas of psychology I'll do better, I'd say that pedophilia is a paraphilia. So the answer would be no, in theory, in practice, yes; if you have the desire to inflict pain on others that's just psychopathy, but I'd have to say a lot of psychopathic people are paraphiliac; psychopaths in particular are either pedophiles or rapists, an example there are hybristophiliacs too that in a way is a form of paraphilia as you are sexually attracted to those who inflict pain on others, and these are often comorbid with some personality condition too. There is literature on the association of high functioning autism and some type of sexual deviation, but it is a different type of thing, i.e. hypersexual behaviours and transexuality (so more a sexuality issue than a sexual behaviour issue), which can be found in the psychopath too, but it's really different. Hypersexuality is a form of paraphilia, another thing that I may know a bit better compared to the psychologist is for instance alcohol. Alcohol causes arousal, but lowers libido, for instance, and yet it's hard to explain how you may notice a hyposexuality and a hypersexuality problem in one individual but it's possible.

In my opinion, hypersexuality is not so weird and dangerous in the autistic as it is in the psychopath, however it is dangerous in the autistic who associates with the psychopath, this is what psychology says, noone knows whether it is true or not, because the issue with psychopathy is that they hardly ever admit to anything. But yes, you could be a paraphiliac without having a preference for children I'd assume, but I'd have to say in general it is more common the scenario that you offer and is a better approach that when you see a person you view a normophiliac, unless they obviously explain they have a specific "unusual preference". Your method is better, as you are going to ace more than if you say "ah but you could potentially be a paraphiliac" without even knowing someone that may lead you down the wrong path.

The cause is it is taught behaviour and drug induced, too, as the psychopath generally has a wish to inflict pain but the aggression is exacerbated by the drug use. In reality there are many reasons too.

I mean, you find literature about autistic that rape but I don't really support this theory, either the diagnosis was wrong, or if the diagnosis was right, the autistic has been lying to you. I had an instance like this, and I thought the autistic was lying and it turned out I was right, in fact I was the key witness to who the actual culprit was, but I wasn't sure because of a false confession, somehow, and logic led me there. Idk how many of these cases exist, but never lie, if you are an autistic, if you haven't done something say you haven't done it. Why they removed torture, because torture would get in the way of the truth, but generally I also have seen many tortured people who were innocent, and it turned out the torturer was not, so yes. It's interesting to look at all angles, but I do have the prejudice that I question everything and everyone, and it's just because I want to be 100% sure. For me, to be 100 % sure, is possible especially when you are not negligent but focused, and yes responsible too when you look at all the angles, and not just one.
 
Last edited:
Jan 2022
2
2
Germany
Thank you for your answer!

Also, if any clinician reads this and has anything to say about this topic, as well, I'd be happy if you shared your view on my question/hypothesis.
 
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